UPSC Prelims 2025 MCQ Test: 50 Most Expected MCQs with Explanations

Welcome to QuizerMania, your trusted platform for competitive exam preparation! This post brings you a UPSC Prelims 2025 MCQ Test with 50 most expected questions, designed to help aspirants strengthen their understanding across Polity, Economy, Environment, and History.

These MCQs are curated from recent trends, government reports, and current affairs, ensuring that practicing this UPSC practice quiz gives you an edge in the Prelims 2025 exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation for the correct answer and reasoning for incorrect options, making it easier to understand concepts rather than just memorize answers.

You can also download a free PDF of this UPSC Prelims 2025 MCQ Test for offline practice.
Also, practice 📰 Top 100 Current Affairs MCQs – October 2025 (With Answers & Explanations)

Topic-wise UPSC Prelims 2025 MCQs

Polity

Q1. The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act deals with:
A) National Commission for Backward Classes
B) Reservation in private sector jobs
C) Women’s reservation in Parliament
D) Fundamental Rights

✅ Correct Answer: A) National Commission for Backward Classes

Explanation: The 105th Amendment restored the power of the President to exclude socially and educationally backward classes from state lists.

Incorrect Options:
B) Not related to private sector reservation.
C) Women’s reservation is separate (not in 105th).
D) Fundamental Rights not amended here.

Q2. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) Union Cabinet

✅ Correct Answer: A) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints CEC under Article 324 of the Constitution.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Advisory or legislative bodies, not appointing authority.

Economy

Q3. Which of the following is included in India’s Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS)?
A) Export incentives for goods
B) Tax on imports
C) Subsidies for agriculture inputs
D) Interest-free loans to MSMEs

✅ Correct Answer: A) Export incentives for goods

Explanation: MEIS provides incentives to promote exports of notified goods.

Incorrect Options:
B) MEIS is not about import taxation.
C) Agriculture input subsidies are separate schemes.
D) Interest-free loans are under MSME schemes.

Q4. Which indicator is used to measure inflation in India?
A) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
B) Fiscal Deficit
C) Foreign Exchange Reserves
D) Trade Balance

✅ Correct Answer: A) Consumer Price Index (CPI)

Explanation: CPI measures price level changes for a basket of consumer goods.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Measure fiscal, reserves, or trade, not inflation.

Environment & Ecology

Q5. The “One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG)” initiative is related to:
A) Renewable energy cooperation
B) Wildlife conservation
C) Forest carbon credits
D) Oceanic research

✅ Correct Answer: A) Renewable energy cooperation

Explanation: OSOWOG promotes solar energy exchange globally.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Not connected to this global solar energy initiative.

Q6. Which of the following is an example of a Ramsar Wetland in India?
A) Chilika Lake
B) Sunderbans National Park
C) Valley of Flowers
D) Keoladeo National Park

✅ Correct Answer: A) Chilika Lake

Explanation: Chilika Lake in Odisha is a designated Ramsar site for wetland conservation.

Incorrect Options:
B) Sunderbans is a UNESCO World Heritage site, not Ramsar (though important wetland).
C) Valley of Flowers – Alpine meadow, not wetland.
D) Keoladeo – Wetland but option A better fits the current question context.

History & Culture

Q7. Who was the founder of the Vijayanagara Empire?
A) Harihara I
B) Krishnadevaraya
C) Deva Raya I
D) Bukka Raya I

✅ Correct Answer: A) Harihara I

Explanation: Founded in 1336 CE along with Bukka Raya I in South India.

Incorrect Options:
B) Krishnadevaraya – Famous ruler, not founder.
C) Deva Raya I – Later ruler.
D) Bukka Raya I – Co-founder but Harihara I is recognized as first ruler.

Q8. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in:
A) 1920
B) 1919
C) 1922
D) 1930

✅ Correct Answer: A) 1920

Explanation: Launched by Mahatma Gandhi post Jallianwala Bagh incident and Rowlatt Act protests.

Incorrect Options:
B) 1919 – Year of Jallianwala Bagh, not movement launch.
C) 1922 – Movement withdrawn.
D) 1930 – Civil Disobedience Movement.

Polity (Questions 9–18)

Q9. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary system in India?
A) Collective responsibility of the Cabinet to the legislature
B) President is directly elected by people
C) Supreme Court judges are elected by Parliament
D) Prime Minister cannot be removed before term

✅ Correct Answer: A) Collective responsibility of the Cabinet to the legislature

Explanation: In India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.

Incorrect Options:
B) President is elected by an electoral college, not directly.
C) Supreme Court judges are appointed by President after collegium recommendation.
D) PM can resign or be removed via no-confidence motion.

Q10. The Finance Commission in India is constituted under:
A) Article 280
B) Article 246
C) Article 356
D) Article 370

✅ Correct Answer: A) Article 280

Explanation: Finance Commission recommends distribution of tax revenue between Union and States.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Deal with legislative powers, President’s rule, and special provisions for J&K.

Q11. The Anti-Defection Law was added to the Constitution in:
A) 1985
B) 1975
C) 1992
D) 2000

✅ Correct Answer: A) 1985

Explanation: 52nd Amendment added Tenth Schedule to prevent political defections.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Not related to Anti-Defection Law.

Q12. Who has the power to dissolve Lok Sabha?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chief Justice of India

✅ Correct Answer: A) President of India

Explanation: President dissolves Lok Sabha on advice of PM.

Incorrect Options:
B) PM advises; cannot dissolve directly.
C, D) No constitutional powers to dissolve LS.

Q13. The Union List is mentioned in:
A) Seventh Schedule of Constitution
B) Article 370
C) Directive Principles
D) Ninth Schedule

✅ Correct Answer: A) Seventh Schedule of Constitution

Explanation: Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Deal with special provisions, directives, or land reforms.

Q14. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by:
A) Resolution passed by Lok Sabha with majority of members
B) President
C) Prime Minister
D) Supreme Court

✅ Correct Answer: A) Resolution passed by Lok Sabha with majority of members

Explanation: Constitution allows Speaker’s removal by majority vote in LS.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – No direct removal powers.

Q15. Which article provides Right to Freedom of Religion?
A) Articles 25–28
B) Articles 19–21
C) Articles 14–18
D) Article 32

✅ Correct Answer: A) Articles 25–28

Explanation: Articles guarantee freedom of conscience and religious practices.

Incorrect Options:
B) Fundamental freedoms like speech, movement.
C) Equality provisions.
D) Right to constitutional remedies.

Q16. The Finance Commission submits its report every:
A) 5 years
B) 3 years
C) 10 years
D) 2 years

✅ Correct Answer: A) 5 years

Explanation: Article 280 mandates quinquennial commission.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Not constitutionally mandated.

Q17. Who presides over Joint Sitting of Parliament?
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) Vice President
C) Prime Minister
D) President

✅ Correct Answer: A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation: Speaker chairs joint sittings as per Article 108.

Incorrect Options:
B) VP presides over Rajya Sabha only.
C, D) No constitutional role in joint sitting.

Q18. Ordinances issued by the President are valid for:
A) 6 weeks from reassembly of Parliament
B) 3 months
C) 1 year
D) Indefinite

✅ Correct Answer: A) 6 weeks from reassembly of Parliament

Explanation: Constitution mandates approval by LS within 6 weeks.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Exceed constitutional limits.

Economy (Questions 19–28)

Q19. GST was implemented in India in:
A) 2017
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2015

✅ Correct Answer: A) 2017

Explanation: GST came into effect from 1 July 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Wrong implementation dates.

Q20. Which bank launched Digital Rupee (e₹) pilot in India?
A) RBI
B) SBI
C) PNB
D) ICICI

✅ Correct Answer: A) RBI

Explanation: RBI issued digital currency pilot to test CBDC for general use.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Commercial banks facilitate, but RBI issues.

Q21. The term Repo Rate is associated with:
A) RBI monetary policy
B) Income Tax slabs
C) Fiscal deficit
D) Foreign Trade

✅ Correct Answer: A) RBI monetary policy

Explanation: Repo rate is rate at which RBI lends to banks.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Not related to banking interest rates.

Q22. MSME Sector contributes around ____% to India’s GDP.
A) 30
B) 10
C) 20
D) 5

✅ Correct Answer: A) 30

Explanation: MSMEs are backbone of economy contributing nearly 30% of GDP.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Underestimation of sector contribution.

Q23. RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meets how many times a year?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 2
D) 12

✅ Correct Answer: B) 6

Explanation: MPC meets every two months to decide repo/ reverse repo rates.

Incorrect Options: A, C, D – Not per official schedule.

Q24. Inflation targeting in India was introduced in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2018

✅ Correct Answer: A) 2016

Explanation: RBI mandated to maintain CPI inflation at 4% ± 2%.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Incorrect timeline.

Q25. Which scheme is related to Atmanirbhar Bharat MSME support?
A) CGTMSE
B) MGNREGA
C) PMAY
D) Ayushman Bharat

✅ Correct Answer: A) CGTMSE

Explanation: Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises supports collateral-free loans.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Different sectoral schemes.

Economy (Q26–Q28)

Q26. Which of the following is an example of a direct tax in India?
A) Income Tax
B) GST
C) Customs Duty
D) Excise Duty

✅ Correct Answer: A) Income Tax

Explanation: Direct taxes are paid directly by individuals/organizations to the government. Income tax is directly levied.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Indirect taxes collected on goods/services or imports.

Q27. The term Current Account Deficit (CAD) refers to:
A) Excess of imports over exports of goods, services, and transfers
B) Budget deficit of the government
C) Shortage of foreign exchange reserves
D) Decline in GDP

✅ Correct Answer: A) Excess of imports over exports of goods, services, and transfers

Explanation: CAD measures balance of payments related to trade and transfers.

Incorrect Options:
B) Budget deficit – Fiscal term.
C) Reserves – Not same as CAD.
D) GDP decline – Different economic indicator.

Q28. Which of the following is an export promotion scheme of India?
A) Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS)
B) Make in India
C) Digital India
D) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

✅ Correct Answer: A) Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS)

Explanation: MEIS incentivizes exports of notified goods to boost trade.

Incorrect Options:
B) Make in India – Manufacturing focus.
C) Digital India – IT/technology focus.
D) Swachh Bharat – Sanitation initiative.

Environment & Ecology (Q29–Q38)

Q29. The Chipko Movement is associated with:
A) Forest conservation
B) Wildlife protection
C) River rejuvenation
D) Renewable energy

✅ Correct Answer: A) Forest conservation

Explanation: Started in Uttarakhand, activists hugged trees to prevent felling.

Incorrect Options:
B) Wildlife – Different movement.
C) River – Narmada Bachao Andolan.
D) Energy – Not related.

Q30. One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) aims at:
A) Global solar energy grid
B) Wildlife corridor connectivity
C) Mangrove restoration
D) Electric vehicle adoption

✅ Correct Answer: A) Global solar energy grid

Explanation: OSOWOG aims to share solar power internationally.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Not related to energy grids.

Q31. Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Wetland in India?
A) Sundarbans
B) Valley of Flowers
C) Elephanta Caves
D) Konark Sun Temple

✅ Correct Answer: A) Sundarbans

Explanation: Recognized for mangrove ecosystem and biodiversity.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Heritage sites but not wetlands.

Q32. Ramsar Convention relates to:
A) Wetland conservation
B) Forest protection
C) Endangered species
D) Climate change

✅ Correct Answer: A) Wetland conservation

Explanation: International treaty to conserve wetlands of global importance.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Different environmental conventions.

Q33. India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) includes:
A) Solar Mission
B) MGNREGA
C) Ayushman Bharat
D) Digital India

✅ Correct Answer: A) Solar Mission

Explanation: Part of 8 missions under NAPCC to reduce carbon emissions.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Not climate-focused programs.

Q34. The Olive Ridley Turtle is primarily found along:
A) Odisha coast
B) Kerala coast
C) Gujarat coast
D) Goa coast

✅ Correct Answer: A) Odisha coast

Explanation: Mass nesting occurs at Gahirmatha Beach in Odisha.

Incorrect Options:
B, C, D – Other species found, but Olive Ridley mainly Odisha.

Q35. Biosphere Reserves in India are managed under:
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) Ministry of Defence
D) Ministry of Science & Technology

✅ Correct Answer: A) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change

Explanation: Administered under Wildlife Protection Act and MoEFCC guidelines.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Not responsible for protected reserves.

Q36. Which river is called Sorrow of Bihar?
A) Kosi
B) Ganga
C) Gandak
D) Son

✅ Correct Answer: A) Kosi

Explanation: Frequent flooding leads to destruction and loss.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Other rivers, different flooding pattern.

Q37. India’s first National Park was:
A) Jim Corbett National Park
B) Ranthambore
C) Kanha
D) Kaziranga

✅ Correct Answer: A) Jim Corbett National Park

Explanation: Established in 1936 to protect tigers (originally Hailey National Park).

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Established later.

Q38. Clean Ganga Mission (Namami Gange) launched in:
A) 2014
B) 2010
C) 2018
D) 2012

✅ Correct Answer: A) 2014

Explanation: Government program to clean and rejuvenate river Ganga.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Wrong launch years.

History & Culture (Q39–Q50)

Q39. Battle of Plassey was fought in:
A) 1757
B) 1761
C) 1748
D) 1773

✅ Correct Answer: A) 1757

Explanation: Led to British East India Company dominance in Bengal.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Incorrect dates.

Q40. Ashoka’s Kalinga War was in:
A) 261 BCE
B) 273 BCE
C) 250 BCE
D) 300 BCE

✅ Correct Answer: A) 261 BCE

Explanation: Battle led to Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Wrong years.

Q41. The founder of Vijayanagara Empire was:
A) Harihara I
B) Krishnadevaraya
C) Deva Raya I
D) Bukka Raya I

✅ Correct Answer: A) Harihara I

Explanation: Established in 1336 CE in South India.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Later rulers or co-founders.

Q42. Tipu Sultan was ruler of:
A) Mysore
B) Hyderabad
C) Jaipur
D) Gwalior

✅ Correct Answer: A) Mysore

Explanation: Famous for resistance against British East India Company.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Different princely states.

Q43. Rani Lakshmibai died during:
A) 1857 Revolt
B) 1817 War
C) 1848 Rebellion
D) 1862 Mutiny

✅ Correct Answer: A) 1857 Revolt

Explanation: Led rebellion against British in Jhansi.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Incorrect historical events.

Q44. Mauryan Empire reached its greatest extent under:
A) Ashoka
B) Chandragupta Maurya
C) Bindusara
D) Samprati

✅ Correct Answer: A) Ashoka

Explanation: Extended to Kalinga and southern India.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Earlier rulers with smaller territory.

Q45. Harappan Civilization was discovered at:
A) Harappa
B) Lothal
C) Mohenjo-Daro
D) Kalibangan

✅ Correct Answer: A) Harappa

Explanation: Excavated in Punjab (now Pakistan) in 1920s.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Other Harappan sites.

Q46. Bhagavad Gita is a part of:
A) Mahabharata
B) Ramayana
C) Vedas
D) Upanishads

✅ Correct Answer: A) Mahabharata

Explanation: Dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna during Kurukshetra war.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Different texts.

Q47. First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between:
A) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
B) Akbar and Hemu
C) Humayun and Sher Shah
D) Babar and Rana Sanga

✅ Correct Answer: A) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

Explanation: Founded Mughal Empire in India.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Later battles or alliances.

Q48. The Swadeshi Movement was launched in response to:
A) Partition of Bengal (1905)
B) Jallianwala Bagh massacre
C) Simon Commission
D) Non-Cooperation Movement

✅ Correct Answer: A) Partition of Bengal (1905)

Explanation: Led to boycott of British goods.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Events in later years.

Q49. Ajanta Caves are famous for:
A) Buddhist rock-cut architecture
B) Jain rock temples
C) Hindu temples
D) Mughal forts

✅ Correct Answer: A) Buddhist rock-cut architecture

Explanation: Contains murals and sculptures from 2nd century BCE – 480 CE.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Incorrect religions or eras.

Q50. Bhimbetka Rock Shelters are located in:
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Odisha
D) Chhattisgarh

✅ Correct Answer: A) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Prehistoric rock shelters with ancient cave paintings.

Incorrect Options: B, C, D – Other Indian states.

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Don’t forget to practice 📰 Top 100 Current Affairs MCQs – October 2025 (With Answers & Explanations)

This UPSC Prelims 2025 MCQ Test with 50 most expected questions covers all key areas – Polity, Economy, Environment, and History/Culture. Download the free PDF and practice regularly to strengthen your preparation.

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